...telecommunicatiins 'notice of acceptance '
Posted: Wed Jan 30, 2008 12:00 am
Here is another interesting question.
A Confirming Bank and an Issuing Bank have been transacting letter of credit for the same customers for the same merchandise for many years.
The amounts involved have been substantial and settlement of all presentations have come through satisfactorily up until now – sometimes based on complying presentations and sometimes after – waiver has been provide by applicant which the |Issuing Bank accepted.
As the amounts involved were big the Confirming bank would typically telephone the Issuing Bank to check that documents had been received and in the process asked when payment would be made.
They spoke to different operations staff in the Issuing Bank on different occasions and the answer give was something like ‘as usual we expect to pay within the next two or three days’.
Everything went fine until recently.
In a recent presentation it followed a similar pattern and again when the confirming bank phoned the Issuing Bank the issuing bank staff member said as usual something like ‘ we expect this presentation will be paid within next few days’
However, what transpired was that the Issuing Bank issued a proper notice of refusal by MT 734 before the close of the fifth banking day following the presentation stating valid discrepancies.
Would you consider the verbal advise on the phone which I guess is by ‘telecommunications’ mentioned in UCP means that the Issuing Bank can not refuse after the verbal acceptance, especially as that is what happened in earlier presentations.
I usually have my own clear opinion on UCP issues (even though I have learned through the knowledge in this forum that my opinions we not always correct) but this time I am between two minds.
Most likely this will sort itself out as in reality it appears that the reason for refusal by the applicant is in reality because the ship is late in arriving they probably don’t want to pay until the goods arrive.
Just curious as to what the correct outcome would be if the Issuing Bank maintained its refusal position.
Thanking you in advance for your views.
Svetlana
A Confirming Bank and an Issuing Bank have been transacting letter of credit for the same customers for the same merchandise for many years.
The amounts involved have been substantial and settlement of all presentations have come through satisfactorily up until now – sometimes based on complying presentations and sometimes after – waiver has been provide by applicant which the |Issuing Bank accepted.
As the amounts involved were big the Confirming bank would typically telephone the Issuing Bank to check that documents had been received and in the process asked when payment would be made.
They spoke to different operations staff in the Issuing Bank on different occasions and the answer give was something like ‘as usual we expect to pay within the next two or three days’.
Everything went fine until recently.
In a recent presentation it followed a similar pattern and again when the confirming bank phoned the Issuing Bank the issuing bank staff member said as usual something like ‘ we expect this presentation will be paid within next few days’
However, what transpired was that the Issuing Bank issued a proper notice of refusal by MT 734 before the close of the fifth banking day following the presentation stating valid discrepancies.
Would you consider the verbal advise on the phone which I guess is by ‘telecommunications’ mentioned in UCP means that the Issuing Bank can not refuse after the verbal acceptance, especially as that is what happened in earlier presentations.
I usually have my own clear opinion on UCP issues (even though I have learned through the knowledge in this forum that my opinions we not always correct) but this time I am between two minds.
Most likely this will sort itself out as in reality it appears that the reason for refusal by the applicant is in reality because the ship is late in arriving they probably don’t want to pay until the goods arrive.
Just curious as to what the correct outcome would be if the Issuing Bank maintained its refusal position.
Thanking you in advance for your views.
Svetlana